Right, so starving people is not an industrialised execution process, even if it achieves exactly the same ends.
Hence it is valid to ask you if a less industrialised operation is not as bad, even if it is intentionally carried out and achieves the same outcome, for more or less the same kinds of prejudiced reasons.
Not seeing the relevance.
Lol, how am I not addressing it? I try to investigate it and you call it a straw man.
Of course you don't.
It is your typical way of not arguing a point and making people deal with a separate argument.
Nobody other than the Nazis created the level of industrialisation to carry out a direct mass killing of a specific group of people.
Starvation by the Russians killed a range of ethnic and religious groups.
The Nazis targeted Jews, Slavs, Roma, Disabled, Socialists and gay people. They set up departments with people with direct responsibilities, reporting structures who's sole purpose was to plan and direct the killing of these people. They had conferences on the subject to decide what to do with the Jewish Question. And so the Final Solution was born.
Statistics were kept, gas chambers were built, crematoria were built. Nobody has built infrastructure on the scale that the Nazis did, that had one single purpose - killing as many people as fast as possible.
There were a range of doctors who's sole responsibility was to segregate people at the camps, carry out heinous experiments at camps and other institutions.
Nothing on the scale ever attempted by anyone.
That is why it receives the attention it does.
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