Is this possible?

S

Sparky_za

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Hi Guys

I have 2 contracts with MTN. One a MyCall100 and the other a ProCall120. I have recently changed jobs and am using my cell a lot more. My main number however is the MyCall100.

So what I'd like is to be able to make calls on the ProCall120 plan, and receive on the MyCall100 number without changing SIM cards constantly. Can this be done?

I have spoken to the Helpdesk and to the guys in-store, but they are just as unsure as I am.
 
Hi
Are you going to be using 2 handsets or one.
Please elaborate a bit more because I am unsure about what exactly you trying to do here. You can OM me if necessary.
Regards
DD
 
Keeper said:
Call Diverting?
Click to expand...

That can be done, but diverts cost money for the person doing the divert.
Best would be an unconditional divert to voicemail giving the other number of the other phone. Thus you can drop the mycall 100 some where at home, even take the simcard out and all call will go to the Procall number instead, thus if someone has the Mycall 100 number only they will be given the new number from the voicemail ;)

Just my 2c
 
Good Idea pitbull. but AFAIK diverting doesn't cost the diverter anything, and you can also take the SIM out too, though...
 
Keeper said:
Good Idea pitbull. but AFAIK diverting doesn't cost the diverter anything, and you can also take the SIM out too, though...
Click to expand...

For a divert to voice mail, no charge.

Divert to another number. Person A pays for the call to the number for Person B, Person B has a divert to a number (Person C). Person B pays for the call from his phone to the number for Person C

Thus there is 2 charges for one call. The divers is done by your number dialing the 3rd person's number thus creating another call.

Kind of hard to explain but hope the above makes sense :o
 
I understand what you are saying but i'm sure the 2nd person doesn't pay.

so you are saying my phone will not divert if there is no airtime on it?

what happens if I (PersonB) have R2, and the person (Person A) calling my phone has R300. he gets diverted to person C, but gets cut off after MY money is up?
 
Keeper said:
I understand what you are saying but i'm sure the 2nd person doesn't pay.

so you are saying my phone will not divert if there is no airtime on it?

what happens if I (PersonB) have R2, and the person (Person A) calling my phone has R300. he gets diverted to person C, but gets cut off after MY money is up?
Click to expand...

lol, nice experiment for us to try here :). I'm sure the call will be cut. If person A phones again after the call drops it should say the subscriber you have dialed is not available.

But I haven't tried it yet I can't be sure :o
 
Hi
Pitbull is correct
Any divert to VM is free.
Diverts anywhere else are chargeable.
So if A phones B and B has all calls diverted to C then A pays to call B as per normal. B will pay for a Call to C because of the divert. If B does not have any airtime then the call does not go anywhere. This has been tested.
Regards
 
What do you mean should this be allowed? its logic :-)
If you diverting your calls to another number you are in essence calling that number, remember the number you can divert to can be any number, MTN VC Cell C Telkom or even an international number provided that you have internatinal calling.
 
what happens if person c, d, e and f have call diverting on too - do you pay 6 times the cost......Ouch!
 
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