My daft question for the day...

[Merlin]

OK, so on 56K I was putting in a POP number to dial, but with ADSL all I input is my username and password...I've just done it again on the new Router...

Um...htF does the system know where to connect to?

...or am I being daft here?

*scratches head*

Thanks, N.

 

[general_koffi]

It's a different system.

A dial-up uses an analogue phone connection... So your modem has to dial the number of the computer which will give you digital access to the network.

With an ADSL line, you don't have to convert analogue to digital. You already have physical, digital access to the internet using the PPPoE protocol... However, it isn't a direct connection - you still need to route via a direct connection, which your ISP has, and which you are given access to with your username and password.

If you had a fibre connection to the internet, you wouldn't even have a username and password in a WAN context.

I think that's how it works, anyway... correct me if i'm wrong.

 

[DarthCat]

Use username to know where to connect to. (I think so)

 

[Kasyx]

There is a constant connection between your router and the dslam, this means that when you "login", it goes straight to the dslam and thus on to your ISP. It is kinda like sending an email whilst already connected to the internet. The email knows where to go because of the name after the "@".

 

[Merlin]

Sweet. Thanks guys.

The 'Does every username have an '@'' was going to be my next question.

...so every ISP [world?] has a unique @insert_title_here ?

N.

 

[Alchemist]

Sweet. Thanks guys.

The 'Does every username have an '@'' was going to be my next question.

...so every ISP [world?] has a unique @insert_title_here ?

N.

Yip, like @telkomsa.net would go to TelkomInternet, and @openweb.co.za would go to OpenWeb and so on and so forth

 

[Merlin]

Thanks.