Can you explain how this works exactly?
If his father charges him/the company R5 000 rent, it will have to be actually incurred in order to be able to deduct it.
So how does incurring rent and deducting it work out better then not paying rent at all?
I'm a little sleepy so might be missing something.
Not a problem m8.
Here it is and I will make it as lamen and as simple as possible without relating to much to mumble jumble the tax.
So here goes
The person in question will start and run a business - Business makes a profit every month
From this expenses are incurred in the running of his business that were specifically incurred due to some exclusions and inclusions according to the income tax act.
In this case the rent that he would hyperthetically be paying was for the premises that he uses for business use and would be used to reduce the income of the company as a general deduction so that the Taxable income he eventually has is less.
Why I suggested that he does pay the rent is because hes starting his business and for instance if his income is low for the first few months from the business the deduction of rent will help to reduce his tax far enough to pay as little as possible.
That was the only reason I really suggested paying it. Depending on the rent and what he wants to do he can ignore it.Without citing any paragraph from income tax just doing tax and that gives me a little shiver as I am not comfortable knowing that he doesnt pay rent and when he begins using his fathers/father inlaws place for business,SARS might feel as though there is a reduction in the rent that would be charegable ie(you arent charging rent because hes a family member) dont quote me on this I havnt found anything yet relating specifically to this scenario but my tax bones arent happy with him not paying any rent at all