OrbitalDawn
Ulysses Everett McGill
For the freaking reason that not every marriage is like that. If you bring up the issue of premarital sex maybe also bring up the issue of premarital rape and women who were deceived into having sex.
Who said all marriages are? Who's strawmanning and caricaturing now?
Space_Chief said:Because YES if a guy pays for dinner and sleeps with a woman by telling her that she's beautiful and he loves her, when he does not really mean it, he is raping her in effect. It's not a violent rape but sex without freaking consent has occurred, because the consent is invalid. I agree with feminists here.
And if a wife doesn't want to have sex with her husband but he pressures her and tells her she's obligated to?
Space_Chief said:You want to discuss the details of that. Go read up on it.
No answer then?
Space_Chief said:Not automatically. If sexual intimacy is lost it may be worked on. If one party is unwilling to work on it, I would definitely say they are not taking their marriage contract seriously. Often there are reasons why intimacy is lost. Such as mental and physical conditions.
And if they can't reconcile and 'working on it' doesn't work?
Space_Chief said:No because it's more than meaning it's a long term commitment. When you sign contract you can't just change your mind after a few weeks. The contract will be terminated and you may pay penalties. That's how this works. In addition the couples get education in this.
Not talking about a few weeks. Could be many years.
Space_Chief said:Per your definition of marriage. Do you think it's valid then that an agreed upon arrangement ahead of time, such as "we'll stay faithful" when breached later by one party is a valid reason for divorce? Or do you think a marriage should still continue even if one party's terms were broken then?
As I said, it's up to the people in the marriage. They can divorce, or not. Up to them.
Space_Chief said:Person A and B are married and they have sworn to remain faithful. Person A (always) refuses sex. Person B suffers for lack of sex. Do you think it's fair to ask for divorce in this case, or should person B just cheat on person A, even though they themeselves think this is immoral? Of course a divorce or annulment follows.
Sure, it's fair to ask for a divorce, if person B determines that's the best course of action. And remaining faithful isn't the equivalent of an automatic obligation for sex on person A because person B wants sex.
Space_Chief said:There is an obligation in terms of marriage. It need not be on demand. And if the person refuses continuously to reciprocate on their obligations i.e. expression of love, then there is no reason for the marriage to continue. Of course not everyone has the same requirements and people may forego the sex. They may let the other party get away with it.
There can be many reasons people in a marriage feel it doesn't need to continue. Up to them.