UIF payments

[air]

Some input please.

My wife was retrenched end of DEC16. She had been working for approx. 20 years at various employers, contributing towards UIF, but not claiming any benefits. She then claimed UIF for approx. 4 months and went back to work in JUL17 on a 6 month contract that ended DEC17.
We only applied later for her second bout of UIF and she has received approx. 1 months worth of UIF.
When we applied for a continuation of benefts via ufling for the second month of benfits, it was declined.

Reason for this, UIF mentioned that she had only been working for 6 months and had thus used all her benefits (1 day for every 6 days worked)

Is this correct? Does her previous 20 years of contributions not entitle her to further benefits or is it only based on your last job duration?

 

[air]

bump.

 

[Brieuse]

Should be same UIF , therefore 20 years?

 

[Venomous]

Should be same UIF , therefore 20 years?

She claimed after the 20 years. IE there was a definative break.
This resets her benefits.
She then works for 6 months and gets a month. I have not been involved with uif rules for a while, but I understand her getting 1month this time is correct

 

[Brieuse]

She claimed after the 20 years. IE there was a definative break.
This resets her benefits.
She then works for 6 months and gets a month. I have not been involved with uif rules for a while, but I understand her getting 1month this time is correct

That sucks then and shows a serious flaw