Your example simply doesn't work, a share purchase agreement has nothing to do (legally and practically) with a car finance agreement (which is governed by consumer and NCA regulations). Compare apples with apples. First, Wesbank wouldn't let you sell the car without settling it, here SARB allowed the sale.
1. Bankorp while owned by Sanlam was bailed out.
2. Sanlam sells Bankorp to ABSA for 0 + the amount of the bailout.
Consequences:
1. ABSA has paid the amount of the bailout to Sanlam
2. The guarantor of the bailout for SARB was Sanlam and remains Sanlam, not Bankorp, not ABSA.
3. Hence SARB should go after Sanlam to recover the bailout money that ABSA already paid to Sanlam.
ABSA would actually pay the amount of the bailout twice if you went after them.
But I guess the tens of contracts lawfirms do on a daily basis where liabilities are covered by the seller are all invalid, I guess all the court rulings validating such are also invalid and I guess all the provisions for liabilities specifically dedicated to this in listed companies are also illegal.
I'll let you browse this and you'll see that the seller can remain the one liable for liabilities existing at the time of the sale:
http://www.pennstatelawreview.org/116/3/116 Penn St. L. Rev. 913.pdf
https://content.next.westlaw.com/Do...&transitionType=Default&firstPage=true&bhcp=1
https://www.goulstonstorrs.com/portalresource/No Undisclosed Liabilities Representations