Article: Zuma asked for extra public holiday

So if the 27th is given a public holiday, should companies pay employees required to work that day overtime rate? That was never planned by them, and some institutions like essential services have to work. Can Fedusa come up with a compensation plan to those institutions on the exceed in salary budget for the month?
 
So if the 27th is given a public holiday, should companies pay employees required to work that day overtime rate? That was never planned by them, and some institutions like essential services have to work. Can Fedusa come up with a compensation plan to those institutions on the exceed in salary budget for the month?

The 27th is not and will not be a public holiday. There's nothing to suggest that it will be. The unions are asking for a day in the new year to compensate for this year's Xmas day. This day (if approved ) will be declared a public holiday well in advance.
 
Wtf, other religions get christian holidays (which are all public holidays) plus their own!

Sent from a Galaxy SII far far away via Tapatalk
Really? Other religions get public holidays for their main religious days? First time I'm hearing of this. I think you've missed the point.
 
I hate it when companies do that. I cannot believe it is even legal. :mad:

Apparently, wrt to December shut down.

"the employer is entitled to stipulate that annual leave must be taken to coincide with the shutdown period. Should an employee utilize his annual leave at another time during the year, then the shutdown period will be treated as unpaid leave."

I also find this interesting read....

What happens in cases where an employee who commenced work in November last year, the employer shut down for a period of 12 days over the Christmas season, and the employee was allowed to take 12 days paid leave for the shut down period, even though he had not yet accrued that amount of leave?

On the 30th of January, the employee resigned and the employer wanted to know if he could deduct the period of leave taken by the employee from any final monies due to the employee upon expiry of the notice period.

The answer unfortunately is no – because in this particular case, the employee never “took the leave” - he went on paid leave with the consent of the employer. The only agreement (verbal) between employer and employee was that the employer agreed to allow the employee to take 12 days paid leave, although he had not yet accrued any annual leave to his credit. There was no agreement entered into whereby the employee agreed that he would “repay” the employer for the leave granted should he resign from the employment before having accrued sufficient annual leave days to cover up the "advanced leave."

Thus, since there was no agreement to that effect, the employer cannot now come along with a new condition - namely to deduct money - to that agreement without placing himself in breach of the original agreement.

Employers must be careful to ensure that whenever they permit an employee to do something or to receive a benefit whereby the position may arise where the employee “owes” the employer something, then a proper written agreement should be entered into to provide for the reimbursement by the employee to the employer for whatever must be repaid
 
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