km2
Expert Member
[)roi(];8277651 said:Copying without a resulting purchase = theft, as it denies the artist of revenue, or gives someone access to something they could not afford.
Copying with subsequent purchase = not a theft, yet I believe its treading a thin line of acceptability re the mechanism used.
My only problem is that you're calling it theft. If you were just saying "Copying without a resulting purchase = wrong" and "Copying with subsequent purchase = not wrong", I could accept your standpoint and agree with it to a certain extent, but calling it theft based on that loss of potential revenue is where I'm having a problem. Theft has a very specific meaning, and I think trying to broaden that meaning does a disservice to our understanding of the problem.
We have varying terms for economic crimes. Theft, fraud, piracy, and others. They each have a specific meaning and I think we need to be able to keep those ideas separate, and deal with them as different things.
Intellectual property is just a much fluffier subject than black and white terms like theft allow. There's limits on the terms of copyrights and patents in years, where one day using an idea or song is "theft" and the next day it's perfectly legal. There's grey areas of fair use and all kinds of other legal loopholes that switch similar actions between the realm of "theft" and not. It's so different to the way we define theft of physical items that I just can't reconcile trying to call them the same thing, and for the sake of what? Making people feel that it's more wrong by using an emotive term like theft?
If one wants to win people over to the idea that copying without a resulting purchase is bad, one should argue on the merits of that, not try and tie it to theft and go "well we already know theft is wrong, copying without a resulting purchase is theft, ergo copying is wrong".