Unhappy1
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Wonderful from the Ad Hominst himself! Thank-you.
Is that even a word?
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Wonderful from the Ad Hominst himself! Thank-you.
It's a nonsense created by auototext/correct on my fern. I meant to write ad hominist, which is equally illegitimate, but you know the meaning.Is that even a word?
Can man attain perfection through works or only through the grace of God via Christ?Not a single human being on earth is sinless save Christ and his blessed mother, so the rest of us must work our way through this imperfection in ourselves and others.
Or through the blood of Christ ratherCan man attain perfection through works or only through the grace of God via Christ?
If you are a Catholic you already know the answer; if you are not, here is the Catholic teaching:Can man attain perfection through works or only through the grace of God via Christ?
You said man must work his way through imperfection, none of the Catholic teachings you listed above say this ("Salvation is by grace alone (ie a free gift than cannot be earned)"). You then go and accuse Protestants of a 'works righteousness' heresy. You are the one who said works are required to deal with imperfections.If you are a Catholic you already know the answer; if you are not, here is the Catholic teaching:
- Only God is perfect.
- Man has damaged himself through sin and cannot through his own action alone attain the end for which he was made.
- The Eternal Word made flesh in Jesus Christ is the sole, unique and only source of salvific grace and therefore redemption for all humans.
- Salvation is by grace alone (ie a free gift than cannot be earned), won through the passion, death and resurrection of Christ, and cannot be accomplished by mere human deeds only or obedience to the Mosaic Law.
That said, the Protestant notion of salvation through faith alone is an absurd and grotesque twist on the Christian gospel:
* It make God either a capricious and whimsical monster (because He gives salvific grace without reference to deeds), or it makes salvation subject to the act of faith, which is no different from any other action or deed, and so becomes a 'works righteousness' heresy.
* It is an innovation and man-made doctrine from the 16th C.
* It is unbiblical - in fact the very opposite is expressly said in Js 2:24.
BTW, the dogma of the Immaculate Conception (ie Mary conceived without the stain of Original Sin) expressly teaches that Mary was redeemed and saved by her divine son, Jesus Christ.
St Paul says it. St James says it. St John says it. Many others have said it. I simply summarised.You are the one who said works are required to deal with imperfections.
What I understand is irrelevant - I presume your real question is "what does the Catholic Church teach"?Arthur what exactly do you understand under papal infallibility ? That, to me, seems a rather unbiblical concept.
Christians must be very careful how they use the word "faith". It is a very simple thing in one way, but once you start unpacking, it is also very complex, and it is used in many different ways and senses in Scripture. A wrong or blunt use can be extremely off-putting and shut people to the truth that Christ died to bring. Depending on context, its meaning can span the spectrum from "trust" (which resides in the will) to "formal identification and acknowledgment" (which resides in the intellect).You are right, it is only by God's grace that we are saved, but if you have no faith in God and Christ, it is logically impossible to receive His grace.
Where it does start to go wrong is with the Calvinist version of salvation.
Pressure from affirmative action campainers. To make a space for a black Pop.Wonder why?
You do realise that a black Pope will be more conservative and appeal more to the demographics that see a growing religious influence? A black Pope won't be installed because of affirmative action, a black Pope would be installed to save the church.Pressure from affirmative action campainers. To make a space for a black Pop.
No, I wanted to know what you understand under it, because what the RCC teaches is unbiblical. "that infallibility means more than exemption from actual error; it means exemption from the possibility of error"What I understand is irrelevant - I presume your real question is "what does the Catholic Church teach"?
Before answering, a short preface: 'Infallibility' is an English version of a technical Latin word with very precise meanings honed over more than a millennium and a half, so when the Church uses that term it uses it in a very specific way that might not be reflected in modern popular dictionaries.
Basically, when referring to "Papal Infallibility", the word means "free of false or erroneous teaching". We use the same word when we refer to Sacred Scripture as being 'infallible' when teaching religious or moral truths. The conditions of papal infallibility are very limited and very specific. The statement, which every Catholic learns in primary school catechism, is: when the pope solemnly and officially enunciates a teaching to be held by everyone, expressly using his office and authority as successor of St Peter and shepherd of all Christians as given it by Christ himself, on matters of faith or morals, he is preserved, by an act of the Holy Spirit, from formally teaching error or falsehood.
So to summarise, the conditions required for a non-erroneous (ie infallible) papal teaching are:
1. He must teach officially as pastor of all Christians by virtue of his apostolic authority as successor of St Peter ("from the chair" of St Peter, which is what "ex cathedra" means)
2. His teaching must be addressed to the universal church, ie to be believed by all the faithful.
3. It can only be on matters of faith or morals.
4. It must be immediately and expressly clear that the teaching is definitive.
> It goes without saying that he cannot change any previous definitive teaching on faith or morals. Neither can he teach any new revelation, doctrine or dogma, for the faith has been delivered once and for all (ie there is no new revelation since that in Christ, which is whole and complete). Authoritative church teaching (whether papal or through the Ordinary Magisterium) cannot bring any new teaching - it simply unpacks and explains the implications of a teaching already implicit, when challenged in a particular age. In this sense, then, all papal teaching can only be an explicit clarification of existing teaching.
In short, papal infallibility is a negative thing: Catholics trust Christ that the Holy Spirit protects them from being taught or forced to believe erroneous doctrines by preventing a pope from issuing them. That is all. It is very similar to our belief that there is no formal error of teaching or falsehood on matters of faith or morals in the Bible.
It does NOT mean the pope is sinless, or that he doesn't or can't lie, or that his personal opinions can't be wrong. By virtue of his office, Pope Benedict has no God-given guidance on who will win a soccer game or how the first 3 picosconds of the Big Bang unfolded or indeed on anything at all. He is simply prevented from officially as pope teaching an error or falsehood on matters of faith and morals only.
More reading on innumerable websites. Some random ones: here, here, and here for a start. It's a big subject.
Christians must be careful how they use many words, many of which atheists must also be careful to use.Christians must be very careful how they use the word "faith". It is a very simple thing in one way, but once you start unpacking, it is also very complex, and it is used in many different ways and senses in Scripture. A wrong or blunt use can be extremely off-putting and shut people to the truth that Christ died to bring. Depending on context, its meaning can span the spectrum from "trust" (which resides in the will) to "formal identification and acknowledgment" (which resides in the intellect).
So what other way is there to be saved ? What else do we have before God ?To hold that only people who in this life formally acknowledge the man Jesus as God Incarnate can be saved is grotesque, unchristian, unhistorical, and unbiblical (yet many little sects claiming to be Christian make these very claims, a skandalion).
It is not up to me to declare how God will judge those that did not have any remote chance of hearing the Gospel. Or had any remote notion of something bigger than themselves.It is well-nigh a moral certainty that those, who through no fault of their own, do not hear the gospel and thus cannot give assent to it, will not be shut out of the Kingdom for that reason.
"Do not hear the gospel" might well cover many people right here on this thread who have heard of 'Christ' (or some people's cut down, distorted version of Him) and had half-baked and half-truth religion shoved down their throats by insensitive and ignorant parents, teachers and other believers ... in such a way that they never really heard the true and full gospel but only a grotesque caricature of it. It is impossible in the extreme to think that a God who so loved the world (of sinners) that He sent his only beloved Son to die in atonement for us, could conceivably damn someone to eternal hell who through no fault of their own never heard the Truth and encountered Christ.
Christ is infallible. The pope is not. Interestingly in Matt 16 Peter, whom you call the 1st pope, is referred to as satan by Christ. That's quite bizarre for someone you'd consider a pope ? I know Christ didn't directly call Peter satan, but there was a manifestation of the character of satan, at the very least. In a pope ! Matt 16 being one of the passages which is quoted as a justification for papal infallability.
And Jesus came into the quarters of Caesarea Philippi: and he asked his disciples, saying: Whom do men say that the Son of man is? 14 But they said: Some John the Baptist, and other some Elias, and others Jeremiah, or one of the prophets. 15 Jesus says to them: But whom do you say that I am? 16 Simon Peter answered and said: You are Christ, the Son of the living God. 17 And Jesus answering said to him: Blessed are you, Simon Bar-Jona: because flesh and blood has not revealed it to you, but my Father who is in heaven. 18 And I say to you: That you are Peter; and upon this rock I will build my church, and the gates of hell shall not prevail against it. 19 And I will give to you the keys of the kingdom of heaven. And whatsoever you shall bind upon earth, it shall be bound also in heaven: and whatsoever you shall loose on earth, it shall be loosed also in heaven. 20 Then he commanded his disciples, that they should tell no one that he was Jesus the Christ.
http://www.newadvent.org/bible/mat016.htm
Where did you find the above little Gem?
Please point it out
No, the basis of the Catholic claim is not in Mt 16. The basis is the authority and mission given directly by Christ to his Apostles in particular and to his disciples in general. It is a living authority, handed down over the generations from the Apostles to their successors, the bishops. The validity and authority rests in Christ himself, the Head of the Church. Mt 16 was only written years maybe decades after the Church had been established. It is the Church that validates Matthews gospel as authentic, not the other way round. Looking to a book as an authority simply begs the question. By what authority? And how do you know?No, I wanted to know what you understand under it, because what the RCC teaches is unbiblical. "that infallibility means more than exemption from actual error; it means exemption from the possibility of error.
The pope calls himself the "vicar" of Christ, which I understand means "in stead of" , just like the word vicarious implies. It is supreme arrogance to think you can fill the shoes of Christ on earth.
Only the RCC makes one massive grey area of the word in fallible."
Christ is infallible. The pope is not. Interestingly in Matt 16 Peter, whom you call the 1st pope, is referred to as satan by Christ. That's quite bizarre for someone you'd consider a pope ? I know Christ didn't directly call Peter satan, but there was a manifestation of the character of satan, at the very least. In a pope ! Matt 16 being one of the passages which is quoted as a justification for papal infallability.
Because the "biblical definition" that you take is in fact part of a long letter that addresses people who already believe. It is of very little use to unbelievers and says only slightly more than nothing about the content of faith.Christians must be careful how they use many words, many of which atheists must also be careful to use.
Why not refer to a Biblical definition of faith : "Now faith is the substance of things hoped for, the evidence of things not seen."
That's a set-up question. Of course there's nothing before God. By definition, else He wouldn't be God. But to suggest that you only have to believe and then you're saved is seriously wrong. It is utterly counter to the gospel of Jesus Christ. It is utterly counter to the Sacred Scriptures. The only place "faith" and "alone" appear together in the New Testament is when St James says that we are NOT saved by faith alone. Why is this do you think?So what other way is there to be saved ? What else do we have before God ?
years later decided what books to incorporate into the Bible. They did this by the authority given to them and to no others, by Christ himself.
They did this by the authority given to them and to no others, by Christ himself.
ponder said:Where's the letter that says so?
Are there any Cardinals in South Africa that can run for pope?
It can be more conservative in European or (even) African terms, I don't know and not going to discuss, as it is secondary issue.You do realise that a black Pope will be more conservative and appeal more to the demographics that see a growing religious influence? A black Pope won't be installed because of affirmative action, a black Pope would be installed to save the church.